I just read an interesting article in the "New York Times" that discusses an age-old law in India that maybe largely responsible for its #1 or #2 ranking of infected persons with AIDS or H.I.V. According to "The New York Times," Indian goverment has a 145-year old law entitled Section 377, which prohibits gay sex, more specifically, 'carnal itercourse against the order of nature with man, woman or animal.' "Independent India" stated, "the law has no good purpose. . .and has been used to systematically persecute, blackmail, and arrest and terrorize sexual minorities." My question to the readers are, "Do you feel like this law is the reason why India's H.I.V. and AIDS quotas are so high due on part of the alienation of those persons of gay and bisexual orientations because of this law?" I feel as if this is what the article is implying? I found it ironic that a law like this has been in effect for 145 years, yet India's AIDS rates are still the highest in the world. Let me know you guys opinions were as journalists. . .
INDIA'S Law on GAY Sex. .
Vanessa Kitchen @ September 18, 2006 - 2:23pm
I agree that the article was unclear as to how the law would cause more people to be infected with H.I.V. and AIDS. Is it because gay people do not recieve sexual education and are not informed as to their options on protecting themselves from STDs because they would be condemned for committing an illegal act? The writer of the article needs to provide the public with more information before people start assuming their own cause and effect scenarios.
Clare Trapasso @ September 18, 2006 - 10:35am
I think you're probably on to something.
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